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Post by Username17 »

TNAMP wrote:As for access to food, this is an era of plentiful land and relatively prosperous independent farmers.
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Did you honestly just claim that an era where the grain yield ratio was often as low as two was an era of "prosperous independent farmers?" Seriously? That's what you're going with?

Look: being an independent farmer is fucking terrible. Large scale farms and division of labor are fucking sweet, and subsistence agriculture is one of the worst ways of life humanity has ever had inflicted on it. Even if you owned your own land to work as an independent farmer rather than being a serf, that was still terrible.

I have no idea why people keep trying to slight of hand in the idea that "self sufficient communities" is a good thing instead of a terrible thing, but it's not. It's bad. Having a relatively small percentage of the population do all the farming while everyone else moves to the cities and works for wages is totally awesome, which is why we do it now. The alternative, where everyone has to till the soil themselves because the economy has collapsed and they can't buy food in markets, is called living in a post-apocalyptic hellscape.

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Post by Ancient History »

TheNotoriousAMP wrote:
Ancient History wrote:What the fuck are you on about, TNAMP? The decline of the Roman Empire in the West and the early Middle Ages was marked by depopulation of cities, erosion of trade, continuous raids and invasions, and political rearrangement. People were not "better off" by any means, and technological diffusion was extraordinarily low. "The Dark Ages" may well be a sobriquet that came out of the Italian Renaissance, but it wasn't like the Middle Ages were much to fucking talk about.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medieval_demography
The depopulation of cities is at the core of why people were better off during the dark ages. The only reason the Italian cities of the Roman empire were so big to begin with was because of the fact that most farming land in Italy and many other of the more settled regions were owned and controlled by large plantation style farms, with the core labor being provided through slavery. This pushed large masses of the peasantry into the cities because they simply could not find work/own land, resulting in cities in which large parts of the population only lived thanks to the grain ration given by the state and the patronage of wealthier residents who used the populace as the core of their power bases.
Regretting getting into this already - are you seriously seeing the ability of a central state to provide food and fresh water for its population as a bad thing? The Roman cities might have been subsidized, but the peasantry weren't particularly better off after Rome was sacked and the empire fell. Individual farmers sold themselves and their land piecemeal, trading their freedom and service to the elite in exchange for legal protection, and the church started to acquire large expanses of land throughout Christian Europe. It wasn't all bad - the Church at least tried to minimize Christians taking other Christians as slaves - but it wasn't necessarily better either. Part of the reason for crappy yields in Northern Europe was because they were trying to use Roman-style farming on the heavier northern soils - in part because the fucking monasteries insisted on bread and wine.
If you actually read the wikipedia article you sent me, you'd notice that the dark ages were a time of relative stability, with the core crises coming during the steady collapse of the roman empire. Aka, the massive bloodshed thanks to the shifting of ethnic groups and the entry of the germanic and hunnic tribes into the European population, the urban and trade driven plagues of the late empire, ect. By comparison, the dark ages lacked the urban density needed to really fuel plagues and, more importantly, the reduced level of cross continental trade resulted in less passing on of the diseases that erupted.
What the fuck article are you reading? Population levels might have been relatively stable at different periods, but politically the Middle Ages as a whole were tumultuous, empires rose and fell, entire populations moved.
Secondly, on the matter of trade and politics. The idea of a dark ages full of raids and violence is not very true. For the most part, its an era of relative calm, by this point the ethnic invasions of the late empire were done and the populations had settled.
Except for the Normans in France. And Southern Italy. And the Arabic raids on the coasts - remember the Emirate of Bari? Yeah. William the Conqueror. The Crusades, since we're in this thread. Etcetera. Do you actually research any of your bullshit?
There was of course the entry of the maygars into the equation, but compared to the huns and goths, it was relatively minor. Plus, and here's the biggie, local trade is good when forming the foundation of an economy.
Local trade is a necessary precursor to developing a functioning economy - and in many cases, Medieval Europe suffered a severe lack of small change for goods, operated in fixed markets with fixed prices (and in many cases state-controlled of the products of labor), with later Middle Ages seeing the rise of guild corporations and the like. It's still a long way from being able to go out and buy a factory-made pot to piss in instead of having to barter a passel of eggs to a neighbor who makes his own crappy pots and got locked into the career because his dad was a potter.
The decline of long distance trade makes building local economies more desirable. (Frank, this applies to self sufficiency). This is why the plantation system fucked the empire, you had certain regions which produced a ton and, thanks to internal stability, this meant that the wealthy in other regions and the city could just consume their products while the population got their ration from the state. Instead, with the temporary collapse of trade, you get more investment and expansion of local farms and centers, with cities going from consumers of faraway goods to centers of production for nearby regions.
What the entire fuck? The decline of long distance trade just made some items completely unavailable until new trade routes were established. And if you were a little farming community up in the mountains of Italy and you couldn't get any fucking salt from the lagoons, you were proper fucked. You don't see "investment" of the sort you're talking about until maybe the late end of the early middle ages, with stuff like the Ottonian Empire.
The cloth manufacturers of the netherlands, for example. In a fully developped economy like our own, yeah trade is good, but, as can be seenh in many developping countries in Africa for example, globalization wipes out the local economy, and with local elites and the wealthy being able to buy foreign goods while relying on the political system to sustain them, there's no incentive to improve the economy at the lower classes level.
The establishment of multinational trade markets in the late Middle Ages is what allowed the development of specialist economies - like the Dutch. The closest parallel you have in the early Middle Ages is the Byzantine Empire and , and they basically acted as a gateway to the east for trade goods like spices, silk, tea, muslin, etc., and they sure as hell didn't retard the development of Europe by sucking up all the capital.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

FrankTrollman wrote:
TNAMP wrote:As for access to food, this is an era of plentiful land and relatively prosperous independent farmers.
Did you honestly just claim that an era where the grain yield ratio was often as low as two was an era of "prosperous independent farmers?" Seriously? That's what you're going with?

Look: being an independent farmer is fucking terrible. Large scale farms and division of labor are fucking sweet, and subsistence agriculture is one of the worst ways of life humanity has ever had inflicted on it. Even if you owned your own land to work as an independent farmer rather than being a serf, that was still terrible.

I have no idea why people keep trying to slight of hand in the idea that "self sufficient communities" is a good thing instead of a terrible thing, but it's not. It's bad. Having a relatively small percentage of the population do all the farming while everyone else moves to the cities and works for wages is totally awesome, which is why we do it now. The alternative, where everyone has to till the soil themselves because the economy has collapsed and they can't buy food in markets, is called living in a post-apocalyptic hellscape.

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The only problem is that before the transition in the model of city economies, people didn't go to the cities to earn wages. They went to the cities because latifundias and members of the lower class controlled almost all of the arable land and used slaves to work the fields. You went to the city because you had no choice and in the city there was nowhere near enough work to go around, because the city had yet to become a true center of production for surrounding regions. Instead it was primarily a power center where tax money could flow in (and go out in the form of grain and oil rations, gladiatorial games, as well as patronage) and power could flow out. This is what I've been trying to point out, a post extractive city model, aka the one we live in now, is freaking great. But you need to make that transition before the city actually becomes a truly productive entity for the lower classes.

To see this in practice today, take a look at Lagos or Addis Abeba during the monarchy or really any African capitol city. Its not a productive place. People flow there because there's no jobs and the city is where you have a chance of getting some food as well as maybe getting linked into a patronage system. The local elites go there because that's where the tax revenue goes. So, much like in the Roman empire, the money is extracted from the economy, goes to the city and is consumed by the elite, with little to none being invested in the economy of the lower classes. This is what an extractive city looks like and why its not a good entity to have.

As for agricultural yields, the 1.5-2 ratio starts improving a bit post 800 CE, in large part thanks to a warming climate as well as the development of plows and tools designed to work with the wetter, heavier soil of northern europe, nothing perfect but far from the crushing poverty of farms in the high medieval ages. Plus, this was a relatively good time concerning the access of forests and wilder lands. Grain wasn't the end all and be all of diets, especially in the more forested regions of Germany and northern Europe. This was a time when hunting was still a viable way of supporting your diet, before the collapse of forests and the imposition of noble claims to the forests and harsh poaching laws. This is in part why the plagues of the empire finally died out by about 740, people were better fed and eating a more varied diet.
AncientHistory wrote:What the fuck article are you reading? Population levels might have been relatively stable at different periods, but politically the Middle Ages as a whole were tumultuous, empires rose and fell, entire populations moved.
There was some movement, but it seems a lot larger because we're talking about a period of 500 years. Compared to the 20th century, or the final centuries of the empire, the middle ages were quite calm. Empires rose and fell, but over the course of decades and centuries, and by the 600's there wasn't really anymore of the mass transfers of ethnic groups in western Europe, with even Eastern Europe settling down post the transfer of the steppe Bulgars. Were talking about a time where Political evolution was moving steadily, but fairly slowly. Even when empires were expanding, only a small part of Europe was ever actually seeing any action at one time. This is before the real division of Europe into the lands of petty lords, so you don't really see the endemic warfare that would come with the High middle ages.
Except for the Normans in France. And Southern Italy. And the Arabic raids on the coasts - remember the Emirate of Bari? Yeah. William the Conqueror. The Crusades, since we're in this thread. Etcetera. Do you actually research any of your bullshit?
Answered above, and yes, I actually do, considering its one of my jobs to do so. The Normans we're a brief period of violence followed by centuries of stability, the Arabic raids on the coasts weren't that frequent, the crusades were brief periods of violence, ect. The only real long term period of violence you mentioned was William the Conqueror and even then that was a period of calm with occasional political crises that really only involved the nobility until the final clash with the Normans and Norsemen. Seriously, this is a time when armies consisted of a few thousand at most with little campaigning at all. Warfare just didn't really impact people in the way it would in the high medieval period or during the mass campaigns of the Roman empire.
What the entire fuck? The decline of long distance trade just made some items completely unavailable until new trade routes were established. And if you were a little farming community up in the mountains of Italy and you couldn't get any fucking salt from the lagoons, you were proper fucked. You don't see "investment" of the sort you're talking about until maybe the late end of the early middle ages, with stuff like the Ottonian Empire.
Guess what, if you were in Italy during the late empire you wouldn't have a fucking farming community to begin with because there was such little land available. And, even if there was, you wouldn't have been able to afford salt because grain prices were artificially low thanks to the slave run plantations. Investment means that local lords actually had an interest in ensuring the wealth of their communities because they couldn't rely on state level taxation for their wealth. In the empire, if the empire did well, a noble did well. Here, if you wanted to do well you needed to make sure your community was producing more food, and if you wanted goods, you needed to ensure that your region was producing them. The Frankish empires, for example, were a boom period of actual expansion of production at a local level, with lower classes on a larger scale having access to the economy in a way they didn't in the Roman cities.
The establishment of multinational trade markets in the late Middle Ages is what allowed the development of specialist economies - like the Dutch. The closest parallel you have in the early Middle Ages is the Byzantine Empire and , and they basically acted as a gateway to the east for trade goods like spices, silk, tea, muslin, etc., and they sure as hell didn't retard the development of Europe by sucking up all the capital.
The Dutch were able to create their trade industries because they weren't being crowded out by the traditional economic centers around the Mediterranean. Plus, they also were able to actually create an industry to begin with because they were independent of the state, allowing them to concentrate on investing within their own economy. Plus, most of their trade was local to begin with, with their main consumers being Northern France and the kingdoms of Great Britain. There was still multi national trade, just not the sort of complete cross empire stuff the Roman's had, which actually harmed their economy.

And the Byzantines were a gateway to trade, but only because the Italians were forcing them to open up. The Byzantines themselves despised merchants and in large part this is why they were basically owned by the Italians by the 1200's. They were content to extract tax resources and live large, without any interest in actually expanding their economy.

In short, for me this all comes down to the city and its role within an economy. If the city is primarily a capitol extracting entity, as it was in the Roman and Byzantine empires, an economy can't really expand without conquest. If, however, you rebuild the economy at a local level and let it expand from there, the city slowly develops into a productive entity, setting the framework for what we have now.
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Post by Username17 »

TNAMP wrote:The only problem is that before the transition in the model of city economies, people didn't go to the cities to earn wages. They went to the cities because latifundias and members of the lower class controlled almost all of the arable land and used slaves to work the fields.
Who cares?

Seriously, you could make the same claim about modern day America. You live in a city because the arable land is owned by big agribusiness and they work the land with a small number of Mexicans and machines. But... so what?

What possible difference does it make why Rome had a specialized labor force with a majority of the population living in cities and doing things other than poking the ground and hoping that enough food came back up so they could eat during the winter? The fact is that economic specialization is totally fucking awesome. The ceramics and tools and clothes made in Roman factories were better than the homespun garbage that isolated communities made for themselves in the post-apocalyptic wasteland that was post-Imperial Europe. And they produced more of it. Not just absolutely, but relatively to the population. GDP per person was simply bigger during the empire than after it. Because economic specialization pays enormous dividends.

You've got this weird hangup where you seem to think that people were being wronged by being robbed of their right to work as subsistence farmers. And while I'm sure a lot of people felt that way about it at the time, having people be "not subsistence farmers" is pretty much job one for any nation trying to have an economy in any era. Having no job at all, and being given bread and water by the government is still a better life than subsistence farming with hand tools. It's actually really hard to find something that isn't a better life than subsistence farming with hand tools.

Of course, even if you did think that it was somehow a good thing to be a subsistence farmer in a lawless hellscape - Rome let you do that too. If you wanted to go to the colonies in Iberia or Asia, you could go poke seeds into the ground. Some people even did that. But you'll notice that a larger majority elected to stay in the cities instead, because subsistence farming is a pretty shitty life when all the chips are down.

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Post by Laertes »

Interestingly, in the late Roman Empire, Diocletan passed laws to prevent city dwellers moving out to the countryside to become subsistence farmers.* The fact that such laws needed to be passed - and that even after that there are frequent complaints from city governors and tax farmers of people doing exactly that - gives us an indication that Roman commoners seemed to prefer being dirt farmers to being members of a specialist economy.

This is not to state that being a dirt farmer is a good thing: subsistence agriculture, especially in a feudal society, is more horrible than most of us can picture. It's a good barometer of just how fucked the Roman Empire was at the time that people viewed it as a desirable state.

* Specifically, the law stated that every man must follow their father's profession. As well as preventing urban to rural migration, this is also commonly assumed to have been a way to force military service upon the children of soldiers in order to make up for Rome's huge manpower deficit.
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Post by deaddmwalking »

TheNotoriousAMP wrote:There was still multi national trade, just not the sort of complete cross empire stuff the Roman's had, which actually harmed their economy.
Would you kindly explain your comment here? On the face of it, it sounds like one of the top three most retarded claims I've seen on this site. I'd like to see if you can make your blatantly false statement make sense without redefining 'economy'.
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Post by name_here »

Laertes wrote:Interestingly, in the late Roman Empire, Diocletan passed laws to prevent city dwellers moving out to the countryside to become subsistence farmers.* The fact that such laws needed to be passed - and that even after that there are frequent complaints from city governors and tax farmers of people doing exactly that - gives us an indication that Roman commoners seemed to prefer being dirt farmers to being members of a specialist economy.
That would be a late empire problem, after the Crisis Of The Third Century, and more prevalent in the outlying territories where things had more thoroughly broken down. It also didn't help that Diocletian instituted uniform fixed prices, with all the disastrous problems that implied.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

deaddmwalking wrote:
TheNotoriousAMP wrote:There was still multi national trade, just not the sort of complete cross empire stuff the Roman's had, which actually harmed their economy.
Would you kindly explain your comment here? On the face of it, it sounds like one of the top three most retarded claims I've seen on this site. I'd like to see if you can make your blatantly false statement make sense without redefining 'economy'.
Complete and total globalization can harm an economy if there's not already a sold base for the local population to rely on. Which is why I have been using the example of African countries. A good case, local cloth production. Before the 1980's, cloth production was a major source of livelihoods for a lot of people in Zambia. Food and clothing are two essential needs, so, though clothing was more expensive, the population on the whole benefited from it because more people were employed and more capital was flowing internally within the country. This kept the economy going for the lower classes. More importantly, the clothing industry was steadily growing and was becoming a source of economic development for the region.

Then, Zambia gets hit by the mass introduction of bulk clothing sales. When you donate clothing to the goodwill, most of the stuff is sold to wholesalers in bulk, to raise donations. They then pack it in bulk and sell it in African and other poorer nations. This mass sale of t shirts and the like wiped out the local cloth producers, because they simply can't compete with the prices. So clothing prices go down. However, in the mean time, there are no fallback jobs for the people put out of business, because its still a fairly basic economy. So suddenly a large sector of the population is unemployed and there is far less capital in play, because a lot of it is flowing out of the country to pay for the imports. This means that, unlike a developed economy, where a decrease in the price of the basics opens up jobs and spending in more complex goods, instead you just have a group of people with slightly less money and a large section of people with no money and spending just shuts down.

Economies work by steadily forming a base that can support the population's basic needs, which they then develop and refine so that becomes cheaper and cheaper, and the local capital that is freed up is pumped into investment and development, with it circulating internally. They can then transition into a more developed economy, with production and then services becoming the cornerstone of the market. Thus, in the United States, the introduction of cheap chinese clothing made life better because it freed up capital to go other places AND we had fallback industries that the people who used to work in clothing manufacturing could go to. Thus, the lower classes had a recourse and could continue working. In this case, the capital freed flows internally for the most part, not externally like in the case of Zambia.

It basically comes down to the fact that "globalization" if we can call it that in the Roman empire's case, prevented the growth of medium and smaller "businesses". This meant that much of the empire remained undeveloped, and, more importantly, the "middle class" surplus producing farmers who had formed the bedrock of the Republic's economy and military were wiped out. This reduced the ability of the lower classes to access economic advancement and, with the elites being economically comfortable, meant that there was no real money trickling down to aid smaller farms expand. So basically it became like an African nation, the wealthy are wealthy, the poor have few to no jobs and this stifles economic growth, because growth is powered by the ability of the middle and lower class to acquire new things.

Frank- I know you have a hang up on subsistence farming, but we're not talking Ethiopian peasants here. These are people with access to relatively large amounts of good land, plus grazing, plus hunting, ect. Even with low seed ratios, you still have enough food being produced in relation to the people working the farm that there are small surpluses being made. These surpluses then circulate into the local village economy, where they fuel local manufacturing, which then, over time, starts to build up until there's once again a surplus flowing into the cities, which can invest it and transform it into the start of industries. The crushingly poor "dirt farmer" is the peasant of the high medieval ages, where land was incredibly scarce, which meant that even with a better seed yield, the seed to person ratio was far lower and even more taxed by the removal of the grazing animals and hunting that were able to assist grain in feeding people.
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Post by angelfromanotherpin »

TNAMP is literally the first person I have ever heard of who thinks that the Roman middle class was squeezed out by too much commerce and not by slavery.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

angelfromanotherpin wrote:TNAMP is literally the first person I have ever heard of who thinks that the Roman middle class was squeezed out by too much commerce and not by slavery.
Slavery was a crucial part of the commerce. Slavery allowed the formation of the latifundia plantations that squeezed out the yeoman farmers and forced them into the city, wiping out the nascent agricultural middle class. Which I kinda mentioned a bunch of times. And I wouldn't necessarily call it too much commerce. Rather, I'd define it as too few transactions, with them all being concentrated in large trades at the level of the upper classes, and not large amounts of small transactions amongst the middle and lower classes that kept capital flowing among a greater number of people.
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Post by Ancient History »

You've also been wrong a lot of times. There wasn't much of a nascent middle class, there was a subsistence class where the land was owned by patrons and their clients tilled the soil and milked the goats - until the patron told them to plant cash crops like grape vines or olives.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

Ancient History wrote:You've also been wrong a lot of times. There wasn't much of a nascent middle class, there was a subsistence class where the land was owned by patrons and their clients tilled the soil and milked the goats - until the patron told them to plant cash crops like grape vines or olives.
The patronage system of land owning primarily came about with the rise of the upper class during the late Republic and early empire. Early and middle Republican agriculture was dominated by independent and fairly self sufficient farmers, who would usually grow some olives, have some goats, ect. Not wealthy by any means, but with enough of a surplus to grow. To have a patronage system like you describe, you need either a- a system based upon military service by professional nobles who have legal rights to the land, which the roman's did not have or b- a large enough concentration of capital that people are able to buy up immense tracks of land and through that gain economic rights to it, which the Roman's really didn't have until their surpassing of the Carthaginians as the primary power over the Mediterranean and their increased access to trade markets and taxation.
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Post by angelfromanotherpin »

I still want to know how 'globalization' harmed the Roman economy, because right now all I know is how it harms modern-day Zambia, which is a suspiciously different country.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

angelfromanotherpin wrote:I still want to know how 'globalization' harmed the Roman economy, because right now all I know is how it harms modern-day Zambia, which is a suspiciously different country.
Because its a similar situation, namely of what happens when globalization hits an undeveloped economy without a secondary base of unskilled urban manufacturing or a service sector to fall back on. The workers have no jobs. Capital is steadily removed from circulation in the lower classes. The upper classes have no demand from the middle and lower classes to expand production, because they have no capital, meaning that once the needs of the wealthy are satisfied, and the poor have some bread and water to calm them, the economy stops growing. Corruption and political stagnation sets in because the state becomes a core source of revenue for the wealthy because the economy isn't expanding unless you're conquering and looting new territories. The Roman Empire is comparable to a modern African nation, thanks to the set up of its economy and the role of force in ensuring the wealth of the upper class.
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Post by Ancient History »

0.o You might as well compare ancient Rome to the contraction of the middle class in contemporary America. I call bullshit. Citation needed.
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Post by angelfromanotherpin »

It's a nice list of effects, to be sure. Connections to the posited cause seem kind of lacking.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

Ancient History wrote:0.o You might as well compare ancient Rome to the contraction of the middle class in contemporary America. I call bullshit. Citation needed.
Working on a book on the subject, so I've got some sources at home. Here's one you can access on the internet. Its a good basic introduction to cities and the economic transitions within them.Go to page 85 and 86 for an explanation of the problems with the Roman models of cities.


For the extrapolated economic models for the roman economy, they are primarily based on the known challenges of the byzantine economy and the role of the city in causing it. Considering that the Byzantine empire retained the models of the Roman economy, especially the disdain for expansion of production, its often used to judge the roman economy. The african examples are my own extrapolations which I am using in the project I am working on. My argument for justifying their use has been set forth repeatedly, though they are best considered as models for regions of the empire with the world being the empire as a whole, rather than each one being in the role of the empire. To be blunt, I've been giving a pretty short overview of at least what I and a decent section of fellow historians think, to really do it justice needs about 40 pages. So make of it what you will.

And the decline of the American middle class is actually a more advanced example of the phenomena described, it all basically comes down to "capital isn't in the hands of the people who drive demand" which is at the core of a lot of economic problems worldwide.
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Post by name_here »

some idiot who wrote a book wrote:Their roads, for instance, were beautifully engineered but too narrow for the carts which could have formed the basis of a viable trade network
Okay, your source has no fucking idea what it's talking about, because in point of fact we know that Roman roads could permit heavy cart traffic courtesy of the ruts worn in them by wheels.
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Post by Ancient History »

Yeah, you might do better looking at, say, Early Medieval Italy by Chris Wickham or The Early Growth of the European Economy by Georges Duby. Your John Reader seems to be trying to capture several centuries of development in a couple paragraphs. If you are writing a book, I hope you use more accurate and detailed sources than that one.
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Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

Ancient History wrote:Yeah, you might do better looking at, say, Early Medieval Italy by Chris Wickham or The Early Growth of the European Economy by Georges Duby. Your John Reader seems to be trying to capture several centuries of development in a couple paragraphs. If you are writing a book, I hope you use more accurate and detailed sources than that one.
I am, it was just a nice summary from an easily accessible internet source that kind of explains where I'm coming from. Duby's Early Growth is most definitely not on the list though. Its a good book and for its time it was revolutionary, but it was long ago surpassed, especially in the mid 90's when the really modern wave of historical study of the early middle ages hit the scene. Good for early readers and very well written, but really not something you should use if you're getting serious about the subject.
Okay, your source has no fucking idea what it's talking about, because in point of fact we know that Roman roads could permit heavy cart traffic courtesy of the ruts worn in them by wheels.
Ruts don't necessarily mean heavy cart traffic. The roads were designed for smaller carriages and foot traffic, and the roman's were avid users of personal carriages and medium sized transportation carts. However, the roman roads could not tolerate the cart sizes of the medieval period and beyond. The ruts corroborate this, as they are of the right size for personal carriages and even medium sized oxen carts. Ruts just mean heavy traffic of wheeled vehicles over time.
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Post by Laertes »

Medieval carts - that is to say, heavy cargo-carrying carts - were actually built to be the same width as the old Roman ruts in the roads because those ruts were worn so deep that it'd break the cart axles if the wheels didn't fit properly into them. Therefore, I posit that width of wheelbase can indeed support a cargo-carrying ox cart.
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Post by tussock »

because in point of fact we know that Roman roads could permit heavy cart traffic courtesy of the ruts worn in them by wheels.
That's just silly. Everything wears given time, and Roman roads had plenty of time. We know they carried all their grain, wool, hemp, flax, and wine on boats whenever possible, they had no horse collar, they had a terrible axle design, no evidence of long-train ox wagons.

And what is this shit about heath in Rome?

The population of Europe under Roman control fell by about 30% during the empire, mainly through regular plague and civil wars. The northern population grew over the same period. After the fall of Rome (or rather, transition to a zero-tax state of self-funded military landlords that still spoke Latin and wore togas, so whatever), the population in Europe steadily grew without plague until reaching about four times the Roman levels.

Fuck the aqueducts, Rome had plagues, the Dark Ages didn't. Rome had massive civil wars that killed millions of people, the Dark Ages had tiny skirmishes often between a few hundred people, the biggest battles number just a few thousand killed. Steady decline and contraction vs steady growth and expansion. 30% tax vs 0% tax.

The Roman Republic "grew" because they stole the wealth of everyone they conquered while freeing up land by murdering enormous numbers of the previous occupants. Then the borders got too far away and they had to stop that, military dictators took over, and from there it was just one disaster after another, until the centralised command economy under regularly insane dictatorial rule was replaced by somewhat smaller empires (Merovingians and Carolingians are much the same size as modern France) which were plainly more successful at keeping people alive and fed. Basic demographics.
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Post by Username17 »

TNAMP wrote:Complete and total globalization can harm an economy if there's not already a sold base for the local population to rely on. Which is why I have been using the example of African countries. A good case, local cloth production.
Uh... no. Just, no.

The event you're talking about has to do with dumping, not globalization. Firms in Zambia weren't forced out of business because of free trade, they were forced out of business because they were competing with sellers who had subsidies and were able to sell goods for less than their marginal price to produce. This destroys firms (who obviously can't compete), but is only bad for individuals or groups of people if they are dependent on those firms. It's like how China destroyed the rare earths mining industry in the United States with state subsidies to their own mining firms which then undercut, purchased, and then shut down the American mining firms. That's bad for people who work in the rare earths mining industry, but it's only bad for rare earths consumers if the Chinese firms use their monopoly status to subsequently raise prices.

Now Zambia is a weird example all around. They had a devastating recession in the early nineties, brought on by a number of things including a huge shortfall in rain followed by a failure to get credit because that happened to coincide with the early nineties recession in the West. But they recovered from that recession fairly well, and experienced economic growth since then. And economic growth considerably faster than population since about 1998. Zambia's growth in the last four years has averaged 6.9% and people are seriously talking about the rocket powered economy of Zambia (although of course: it is trivially easy to arrange high growth percentages for countries which are poor overall). Zambia had some very bad economic times, but it's rather hard to find the failure of Zambian textile firms in the statistics. The usual culprit blamed for Zambia's gradual worsening of economic stature in the late 80s is the declining price of copper - which was Zambia's near sole export at the time. But of course, Zambia's copper mines weren't being forced out of business by dumping, they were just facing a reduced overseas demand.

Again and still: you seem to be basically begging the question. You assume that there's some positive value in having unspecialized local economies, and then point to various effects that forced or allowed specialization and call that bad. But the reality is that unspecialized economic activity is fucking bullshit. It's amazingly unproductive, extremely unstable, and fucking miserable for the people doing it. Heinlein's competent man speech from Time Enough For Love is completely wrong. Specialization isn't for insects, specialization is how we leverage comparative advantage into higher living standards.

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Post by name_here »

That's just silly. Everything wears given time, and Roman roads had plenty of time.
You only get wheel ruts by driving wheeled vehicles over them.
We know they carried all their grain, wool, hemp, flax, and wine on boats whenever possible, they had no horse collar, they had a terrible axle design, no evidence of long-train ox wagons.
Dude, everyone transported everything by boat whenever possible. The invention of trucks may have changed that, but I'm not really sure. Also, the horse collar is much more important to people who live in northern regions with heavy soil, AKA not Italians.
The population of Europe under Roman control fell by about 30% during the empire, mainly through regular plague and civil wars. The northern population grew over the same period. After the fall of Rome (or rather, transition to a zero-tax state of self-funded military landlords that still spoke Latin and wore togas, so whatever), the population in Europe steadily grew without plague until reaching about four times the Roman levels.
The Plague Of Justinian was, in point of fact, after the Western Roman Empire fell. Also, medieval periods totally had dysentery, which is spread by drinking water contaminated by human waste.

European population fell hard from its republic-era heights and did not begin to grow back substantially until the eleventh century. If you read the medieval demography linked on the previous page, you will note that the population figure for Europe at the end of the Empire is 20-25 million higher than the estimate at the time of Charlemange.
Fuck the aqueducts, Rome had plagues, the Dark Ages didn't. Rome had massive civil wars that killed millions of people, the Dark Ages had tiny skirmishes often between a few hundred people, the biggest battles number just a few thousand killed.
They had smaller armies on account of holding less territory and not having as many people in it.
Steady decline and contraction vs steady growth and expansion. 30% tax vs 0% tax.
Well, as previously pointed out, the population did in fact fall substantially during the dark ages. As for taxes, you are just totally full of shit. Let me get out my medieval primary sources book.
[i wrote:The Middle Ages[/i], Brian Tierney, 6th edition, paperback, pg 100, survey of the manor of Neuillay]They pay for the army tax 2 muttons, 8 chickens, 30 eggs, 100 planks and as many shingles, 12 staves, 6 hoops and 12 torches. They bring 2 loads of wood to Sutre. They inclose, in the lords court, 4 perches with a palisade, in the meadow 4 perches with a fence, and at the harvest as much as is necessary. They plow in the winter field 8 perches and in the spring field 26 percges. Along with their corvees and labor services, they cart manure into the lord's field. Each pays a head tax of 4 pennies
Taxes were not nonexistent, they were stupidly overcomplicated.
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Post by tussock »

Light vehicles. People's feet wear grooves in granite if they walk the same path for centuries, Roman roads aren't that strong. Everything wears.

The Plague of Justinian did not spread to the new states. It's specifically a product of the big Romanised cities with massive grain imports. The Eastern empire used the old system of government and continued to have Plagues, the West used a new one and did not.

High Middle Ages tax systems are ludicrous because it's the peak of the population boom. People had nowhere to go to get away from that shit, local lords grew ridiculously powerful as judge and lawmaker, and it just got worse until the plagues set in again and they dropped enough population to justify massive political reform, higher wages, and lower taxes. Earlier "tax" systems are the number of troops you have to provide based on the amount of land you're given to rule over.

Gah. Also, yes, demographics, some of that wikipedia stuff is from the '70's, it's rubbish. Europe had 250 million people when the Black Plague hit (125 million south), in 1000AD they had around 120 million (60 million South), Empire-era Europe had ~35 million (25 million South), Republic-era about 45 million (40 million South).

Yes, if you stop counting Iberia as part of Europe just because the Ummayids take control, or don't notice the population of Rome city moving to Constantinople (which is also not Europe), or the slave traffic that went to Africa rather than the other way around, it looks like there's a population dip post-Rome.

But really, despite the illiterate people who moved in all over the show (Germans, Vikings, Huns, Magyars, etc.) and the loss of Greek literacy to the Latins, they kept building infrastructure and transport networks. They built more grain mills. They built more canals. They built more dykes. They expanded farmland. There's more cities and towns. Sure, they didn't build new roads and bridges when the Roman ones still worked, but they did maintain them. The pre-viking Scandinavian trade was also substantial for luxury items, even though they didn't bulk-move foodstuffs.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merovingians
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carolingian_dynasty

Big, stable empires. Growing populations. Illiterate people not writing things down elsewhere doesn't stop them existing. Eric Bloodaxe couldn't write and neither could anyone he knew, but he certainly existed (maybe as two people) and ruled a fair chunk of the world full of big angry men looking for a new home for long enough.
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